I want to have an intuition for why the $n$-dimensional real projective space defined as $$\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n:=\mbox{set of 1-dimensional subspaces of }\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$$ is compact. I don't see how it is bounded since the subspaces can "extend" to as much as I want.
But I know the proof:
Define a relation on $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}\setminus\{0\}$ via $x\sim y \Leftrightarrow \ x=\lambda y, \ \lambda\in \mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}.$ Then, w.r.t. this equivalence relation, $$\mathbb{R}^{n+1}\setminus\{0\}/\sim \ \equiv \mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n.$$ There is a homeomorphism from $\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n \mbox{ to } \mathbb{S}^n/\sim$ where $x\sim -x, \forall x\in \mathbb{S}^n$. It is $$f:\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n \to \mathbb{S}^n/\sim, \ [x]\mapsto \bigg[\frac{x}{||x||}\bigg].$$ The compactness of $\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n$ follows from $\mathbb{S}^n/\sim$ being compact.
To repeat: My question is about having an intuition. I cannot see how $\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n$ is bounded. Perhaps, you should give me the precise set that will contain $\mathbb{R}\mathbb{P}^n.$
An open set in $\mathbb{RP}^n$ is basically an open cone in $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$, or it can also be seen as just an open set on $S^{n}$ that is symmetric abot the origin, so $U \subset S^n$ such that $U = -U$. Thus any open cover of $S^n$ gives an open cover of the sphere. More generally the point is that every ray corresponds (uniuqe up to sign) to a point on the sphere, so though the rays look unbounded the point is. For yet another perspective, by quotienting the rays down to points, you are basically killing the unbounded part of $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}-\{0\}$.