I am trying to find the inverse Laplace transform of the following function but am currently stumped. My understanding is that I can't formally solve the integral because of the singularity at $s=0$, but I haven't found a way around that issue.
$\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left \{ \frac{1}{s \, (\mathrm{ln}\,s)^{2}} \right \}$
Apologies if this is a basic question. I'm trying to independently gain familiarity with Laplace transforms and don't have a network to ask. Thanks for any help you can provide.