i was asking myself if some sort of "inverse" of the disintegration theorem holds (or eventually when).
Let's say I have a family of Borel measures $(\mu_t)_{t \in [0,1]}$ over $R^d$ such that the map $t \rightarrow \mu_t(B)$ is borel measurable for each Borel set $B$, and let's say I want to associate to this family a finite Borel measure $\mu$ over $R^d \times [0,1]$ clearly such that if $f \in C_0^\infty(R^d \times [0,1])$ the following holds:
$\int_{R^d \times [0,1]} f(x,t)d\mu= \int_0^1 \int_{R^d}f(x,t)d\mu_tdt.$
Is this always possible?
edit: the family $\mu_t$ is a family of finite borel measures
Yes, this is always possible under the conditions which you assumed, namely that $t \mapsto \mu_t(B)$ is measurable for all measurable sets $B$ and that the $\mu_t$ are finite.
The notion that I think you're specifically looking for is the product of transition kernels. Note that every measure is trivially a transition kernel which is constant in its first coordinate.