I'm taking this course to learn game theory and I'm confused about a question in Unit 1.5.
Background. In game theory, independence of irrelevant alternatives (IIA) says the social welfare function $W$ is IIA if the selected ordering between two outcomes depends only on their relevant orderings given by the agents.
The question is
Consider a trivial welfare function in which nature has already determined that the correct welfare ordering is (A,B,C). So W is a function which, on any input of preferences, always returns the ordering (A,B,C). Is W independent of irrelevant alternatives (IIA)?
I think the answer is no because the outcome stays the same even if all agents swap their preferences of A and B.
However, the official answer is yes. The explanation says "$W$ never changes its output, so it trivially satisfies IIA". I don't know how to make sense of this explanation.
I'm aware that this question has been asked in the forum of the course. But no one answers it so far.
Another framing of IIA is to say "To know the ordering of the outcomes of $a$ and $b$, you don't need to know anything about the presence or absence of other alternatives".
So this "predetermined" outcome satisfies that - when working out the ranking of $A$ and $B$, you don't need to know anything about $C$, you just need to know how the agents rank $A$ and $B$. In fact, you don't even need that, but that's kind of besides the point.