Is $$A \lor B \lor A$$ technically in conjunctive normal form?
Or must we apply the idempotent law for it to be in CNF?
$$A \lor B \lor A \equiv A \lor B$$?
2026-03-25 14:27:21.1774448841
Is an idempotent logical expression considered to be in conjunctive normal form?
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According to the definition of conjunctive normal form (CNF), there is no explicit restriction against having duplicate literals in the same clause. So, a formula such as $A \vee B \vee A$ is indeed in CNF even if it is not simplified to include the fewest terms and connectives.