Assuming
$\mathbf{x}\in \mathbb{R}^n$,
$f(\mathbf{x})\gt0 \forall\mathbf{x}\in\mathbb{R}^n$,
is $argmin_{\mathbf{x}} f(\mathbf{x})=argmin_{\mathbf{x}} \log{f(\mathbf{x})}$ always true?
Why?
Assuming
$\mathbf{x}\in \mathbb{R}^n$,
$f(\mathbf{x})\gt0 \forall\mathbf{x}\in\mathbb{R}^n$,
is $argmin_{\mathbf{x}} f(\mathbf{x})=argmin_{\mathbf{x}} \log{f(\mathbf{x})}$ always true?
Why?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
due to $\log$ is monotonous and $f(x) \geq f(y)$ if and only if $\log f(x) \geq \log f(y)$