Let $C$ be a covering space of $B$.
Then, does every open set in $B$ evenly covered by a covering map?
This must be false but I cannot find a counterexample.. Please help
2026-04-01 19:06:15.1775070375
Is every open set in a base space evenly covered?
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Every open subset of $B$ is evenly covered if and only if the covering $C\to B$ is trivial. Duh!