I don't know how to prove whether $f(x)$ is or isn't Lipschitz continuous. I tried by using the definition but I can't come up to a conclusion. I'm so bad at this! xD
2026-03-25 22:25:58.1774477558
Is $f(x)=\cos(\frac {1}{x})$ Lipschitz continuous in $(1, +\infty)$?
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Hint: bounded derivative implies Lipschitz continuity. You can easily prove this using the mean value theorem. And then check the derivative of your function.