Let $x \in {\mathbb R}^n$, and $f_0,f_1,\ldots f_m$ are convex functions on ${\mathbb R}^n$. Consider the following problem:
\begin{equation} (\mathrm{P1})~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ \begin{split} &\mathrm{minimize}~~~~~f_0(x)\\ &s.t.~~~~~~~~~~~~~~f_i(x) \leq 0,\quad i\in\{1,\ldots,m\} \end{split} \end{equation}
Then, can I solve (P1) by the following procedure?
Step 1: Solve $\mathrm{minimize}~f_0(x)$, and derive $x_1^*$.
Step 2: Judge if $x_1^*$ is feasible to the constraints in (P1), i.e., if $f_i(x_1^*) \leq 0$ for all $i \in \{1,\ldots,m\}$. If $x_1^*$ is feasible to them, then the minimizer of (P1) is $x_1^*$. Otherwise, we consider Step 3.
Step 3: Solve
\begin{equation} (\mathrm{P2})~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ \begin{split} &\mathrm{minimize}~~~~~f_0(x)\\ &s.t.~~~~~~~~~~~~~~f_i(x) = 0,\quad i\in\{1,\ldots,m\}, \end{split} \end{equation} and derive $x_2^*$. Then, $x_2^*$ is the optimal solution to (P1).
The algorithm above does not need any optimization technique in dealing with the inequality constraints. In step 1, we solve an unconstrained optimization problem. In step 2, we solve an optimization problem with equality constraints.
In my opinion, this algorithm can correctly return the optimal solution to (P1), since the global minimizer is either within the feasible region described by $f_i(x) \leq 0$ ($i \in \{1,\ldots,m\}$), or on the boundary of the feasible region. Am I right?
Thanks!
This is an excellent question, almost always asked by our students. This approach has several major flaws: