Inspired by the question Is $\lim_{k \to \infty}\left[ \lim_{p \to \infty} \frac{M}{1+3+5+7+\cdots+ [2^{p(k-1)}-2^{p(k-2)}-2^{p(k-3)}-\cdots-1]}\right]=1$? which that, I asked before. I researched the pdf books before asking this question at MSE. When I could not find an answer anywhere, I decided to ask. Even if the question is absurd.
For this function: $$f(n) = \begin{cases} n/2 &\text{if } n \equiv 0 \pmod{2}\\ n+1 & \text{if } n\equiv 1 \pmod 2. \end{cases}$$
We know that for any positive number, there is such a number $\text{“} k \text{''}$, which that $f^k(n)=1$
For function $f(n)$ go "backward" from number $1$ for only odd numbers sequence:
Let step number is $k$ $$[2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}-2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z}-2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}-\cdots-1]\stackrel{k\to \infty}{\longleftarrow}\mathbf{\cdots} \stackrel{k=5}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[2^{m_4+m_3+m_2+m_1}-2^{m_4+m_3+m_2}-2^{m_4+m_3}-2^{m_4}-1]}\stackrel{k=4}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{2^{m_1+m_3+m_2}-2^{m_2+m_3}-2^{m_3}-1}]}\stackrel{k=3}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{2^{m_1+m_2}-2^{m_2}-1}]}\stackrel{k=2}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{2^{m_1}-1}]}\stackrel{k=1}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf1$$
I used this formula:
$$φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k})=φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_{k-1}})×2^{m_k}-1$$
and we can find general distrubition function: $φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k})$
$$φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_{k}})=[2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}-2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z} - 2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}-\ldots-1]$$
$$f^k(φ(m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k))=f^k([2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}-2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z} - 2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}-\cdots-1])=1$$
Example:
$$f^2(φ(m_1,m_2))=f^2({2^{m_1+m_2}-2^{m_2}-1})=\frac{\frac{{2^{m_1+m_2}-2^{m_2}-1} + 1}{2^{m_2}}+1}{2^{m_1}}=1$$
Then, look at this function:
$$g(n) = \begin{cases} n/2 &\text{if } n \equiv 0 \pmod 2 \\ 3n+1 & \text{if } n \equiv 1 \pmod 2. \end{cases}$$
For function $g(n)$ go "backward" from number $1$ for only odd numbers sequence, again:
$$ψ(m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k)\stackrel{k\to \infty}{\longleftarrow}\mathbf{\cdots} \stackrel{k=2}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[\frac{4^{m_1}-1}{3}]}\stackrel{k=1}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf1$$
$$ψ(m_1)=\frac{4^{m_1}-1}{3}$$
Because, $g^1(ψ(m_1))=1$
The problem starts here. I found $ψ(m_1)$ for $k=1$. But, I dont know, how can I find $ψ(m_1,m_2)$ or $ψ(m_1,m_2,m_3)$.I can not continue here.
Anyway.My question's "meat" is this: Is it possible to make a general formula by going back from $1$?
How can we find and is it possible $ψ(m_1,m_2),ψ(m_1,m_2,m_3)...ψ(m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k)$?
If we find, general dispersion $ψ(m_1,m_2),ψ(m_1,m_2,m_3),...,ψ(m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k)$ can we answer that question: Why, is there such a number $k$ for function $f(n)$ always $f^k(n)=1$ and $g^k(n)=1$ or $g^k(n)≠1$(counterexample)?
The question is open to any editing, because I know, there are flaws in question and formulas.
$φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_{k}})=\frac{2^{(m_k+m_{k-1}+...+m_3+m_2+m_1)}}{3^k} - \frac{2^{(m_k+m_{k-1}+...+m_3+m_2)}}{3^k} - \frac{2^{(m_k+m_{k-1}+...+m_3)}}{3^{k-1}} - \frac{2^{(m_k+m_{k-1}+...+m_4)}}{3^{k-2}} - .... - .... - \frac{2^{(m_k+m_{k-1})}}{3^3} - \frac{2^{(m_k)}}{3^2} - \frac{2^0}{3^1}$
If you apply successively the condensed formula $g'(n)=\frac{3n+1}{2^{m_i}}$ to it, you'll reach 1.
k being the "distance" to 1, answering to "why is there such a number k" is answering the conjecture.
EDIT: I used your layout so you can understand better:
For function $g(n)$ go "backward" from number $1$ for only odd numbers sequence:
Note: This is how the Collatz tree is contructed
Let step number is $k$ $$[\frac{2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}}{3^k}-\frac{2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z}}{3^k}-\frac{2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}}{3^{k-1}}-\cdots-\frac{1}{3}]\stackrel{k\to \infty}{\longleftarrow}\mathbf{\cdots} \stackrel{k=5}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[\frac{2^{m_4+m_3+m_2+m_1}}{3^4}-\frac{2^{m_4+m_3+m_2}}{3^4}-\frac{2^{m_4+m_3}}{3^3}-\frac{2^{m_4}}{3^2}-\frac{1}{3}]}\stackrel{k=4}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{\frac{2^{m_3+m_2+m_1}}{3^3}-\frac{2^{m_3+m_2}}{3^3}-\frac{2^{m_3}}{3^2}-\frac{1}{3^1}}]}\stackrel{k=3}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{\frac{2^{m_2+m_1}}{3^2}-\frac{2^{m_2}}{3^2}-\frac{1}{3}}]}\stackrel{k=2}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf{[{\frac{2^{m_1}}{3^1}-\frac{1}{3^1}}]}\stackrel{k=1}{\longleftarrow} \mathbf1$$
I used this formula:
$$φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k})=φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_{k-1}})×\frac{2^{m_k}-1}{3}$$ (which is the inverse of the Collatz function $\frac{3n+1}{2^{m_k}}$ since we run backward)
and we can find general distrubition function: $φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k})$
$$φ({m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_{k}})=[\frac{2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}}{3^k}-\frac{2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z}}{3^k} -\frac{2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}}{3^{k-1}}-\ldots-\frac{1}{3}]$$
$$g^k(φ(m_1,m_2,\ldots,m_k))=g^k([\frac{2^{\sum_{z=1}^k m_z}}{3^k}-\frac{2^{\sum_{z=2}^k m_z}}{3^k} -\frac{2^{\sum_{z=3}^k m_z}}{3^{k-1}}-\ldots-\frac{1}{3}])=1$$
Example:
$$g^2(φ(m_1,m_2))=g^2(\frac{2^{m_1+m_2}}{3^2}-\frac{2^{m_2}}{3^2}-\frac{1}{3})=\frac{3(\frac{3(\frac{2^{m_1+m_2}}{3^2}-\frac{2^{m_2}}{3^2}-\frac{1}{3})+1}{2^{m_2}})+1}{2^{m_1}}=1$$
Note that $ψ(m_1)=\frac{4^{m_1}-1}{3}$ is correct, but above, it was written as $\frac{2^{m_1}-1}{3}$ because other exponents $m_x$ are not always even.
Also note that my answer [k being the "distance" to 1, answering to "why is there such a number k" is answering the conjecture] refers to the previously unedited question: "Why,is there such a number $k$ for function $g(n)$ always $g^k(n)=1$" which is the conjecture itself and nobody can answer yet: when you run backward, you have to prove that you reach all naturals from 1.
EDIT2: The $m_k$ are totally dependent of the parent value $φ$, so there is no way to have a unique formula (with $m_k$ being any natural). For $k=2$ you could write these two formulas (they give all naturals that are 2 steps from 1): one with $m_1=6n+4$ and $m_2=2l+1$: $\frac{32\cdot64^n\cdot4^l-2\cdot4^l-3}{3^2}$ and one with $m_1=6n+2$ and $m_2=2l$(preferably with l>0, but i think it works with 0): $\frac{4\cdot64^n\cdot4^l-4^l-3}{3^2}$, but it does not help much (with $k=3$ you multiply the number of formulas...). You can have an infinite succession of $m_k=1$ (e.g. for $2^y-1$ there is $y-1$ successives $m_k=1$, so you can't predict $m_{k+1}$ with other $m_k$'s), or other combinations, but they are dependent of the successive values they produce (you can't just replace $m_4=1$ by $m_4=2$ or $3$, it would completly change the possible values of $m_{5+}$. If it was so simple, Collatz would be proved by now.