I'm asked in an exercise from an algebra textbook to prove that for$\{ x,y,z\} \subset \Bbb{R}$; if $x,y,z >0$ and $xyz=1$, then $x+y+z\ge 3$.
Using the arithmetic and geometric mean inequality the proof is easy. But in this book the definitions of roots, logarithms and inductive sets are introduced in later chapters. So I guess there is a way to prove it without AM-GM because most proofs of the AM-GM inequality that I'm aware of requiere either induction or logarithms and the inequality itself involves a root.
Can anyone please help me? Is there a proof without using AM-GM?
The proof without AM-GM.
Let $x=a^3$, $y=b^3$ and $z=c^3$.
Hence, $abc=1$ and $$x+y+z-3=a^3+b^3+c^3-3=a^3+b^3+c^3-3abc=$$ $$=(a+b+c)(a^2+b^2+c^2-ab-ac-bc)=$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}(a+b+c)((a-b)^2+(a-c)^2+(b-c)^2)\geq0.$$ Done!