Is it true that $f(e) \ne g(\pi) \,\,\forall f,g$ are non zero algebraic functions

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Just a random question that popped in my head. This is of course non true if we consider just irrationals.
Moreover, (assuming above holds) does there exists some sort of equivalence class for transcendentals such that $x\sim y$ iff $\exists f,g$ non zero algebraic st $f(x)=g(y)$.
If it does, then for each given transcendental, is it dense on $\mathbb R$?

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It is not known if $e+\pi$ is algebraic or not.