Consider two finite sets of real numbers $\max\{a_1,...,a_n\}$, $\max\{b_1,...,b_m\}$.
Let $C$ be the sum of the maxima of the two sets, i.e., $$ C\equiv \max\{a_1,...,a_n\}+ \max\{b_1,...,b_m\}. $$
Is $C$ equal to the maximum of pairwise sums, i.e., $$ C=\max_{(i,j)\in \{1,...,n\}\times \{1,...,m\}}\{a_i+b_j\}? $$
I think the answer is yes, but I would like a formal proof (or a counterexample in case the answer is no)
In general, if $A,B$ are non empty we have $\sup (A+B) = \sup A + \sup B$.
If $a \in A, b \in B$ then $a+b \le \sup (A+B)$ hence $\sup A + b \le \sup (A+B)$, and so $\sup A + \sup B \le \sup (A+B)$.
Since $a +b \le \sup A + \sup B$ we have $\sup (A+B) \le \sup A + \sup B$.
In the above, we have $A=\{ a_k \}, B= \{ b_k \}$. Since $A,B$ are finite, we can replace the $\sup$ by $\max$.