Is this a valid operation in Boolean algebra? $$ \neg (A\land B) \land C = (\neg A \land \neg B)\land C $$
2026-03-31 17:53:22.1774979602
Is $\neg (A\land B)= (\neg A \land \neg B)$ valid in Boolean algebra?
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No, it's $\neg(A\land B)=\neg A\lor\neg B$. Similarly, $\neg(A\lor B)=\neg A\land\neg B$. These are called de Morgan's laws.