In the context of discreet math / boolean algebra / logic, is "(p AND q) OR r" logically equivalent to "p AND (q OR r)"? I believe so, but my professor said:
They are not the same. If p is true, q is false, and r is true, then the first expression is false:
(p and q) or r
becomes
(T and F) or T
which is
F or T
which is
F.
But the 2nd expression is p and (q or r) which is (T and (F or T)) = (T and T) = T.
These are different."
Is he correct? (Also, please excuse my formatting, this is my first question on Math)
The property that we're talking about is called Associativity. It's a property for a single operator $*$ defined as $(a*b)*c=a*(b*c)$. What you have is a $(a*b)+c$ which has 2 operators in it. For more information check out Associativity. Welcome to Mathematics.SE.