Well, for better syntax, my question looks like this:
Isn't $tg^{-1}(x)$ the same as $(tg(x))^{-1}$ ?
I always thought that it was absolutely the same.
But I was trying to solve a task on an edx.org website and I don't understand why their answer is different. Here is the image with the task (and their solution)
In short, it asks what possible values can the following expression have:
$$tg^{-1}(sin(n*\pi)),$$
where n is an integer.
To me it was obvious that $sin(\pi*n)$ is zero, and $tg(0)$ is therefore also zero, and $tg^{-1}(0) \equiv 1/tg(0)$ should be $infinity$.
But in their answer it is said that $tan^{-1}$ function is defined between $-\pi/2$ and $\pi/2$ and "therefore" the answer can only be zero.
Is there something I don't know or am I wrong somewhere?
The notation $\tan^{-1}$ is sometimes used to denote the arctangent function $\arctan$. That is,
$$\tan^{-1}(x) = \arctan(x) = y \Leftrightarrow \tan(y)=x.$$