Let $X$ be a complete real inner-product space and $f:X \to X$ be a bijection which maps connected sets to connected sets ; then is it necessarily true that $f^{-1}$ also maps connected sets to connected sets ?
2026-04-19 21:40:09.1776634809
Is the inverse of a bijective connectedness preserving map , on a complete real inner product space , also connectedness preserving?
136 Views Asked by user228168 https://math.techqa.club/user/user228168/detail AtRelated Questions in METRIC-SPACES
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