We denote by $\mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)$ the normal distribution where $\mu\in\mathbb{R}$ is the mean and $\sigma\in\mathbb{R}$ is the scale parameter.
Assume that the parameters $\mu,\sigma$ are themselves normal random variables, i.e., $\mu\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_1, \sigma_1^2)$ and $\sigma\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_2, \sigma_2^2)$. Is the distribution $\mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^2)$ still normal? I note that $\sigma\sim\mathcal{N}(\mu_2,\sigma_2^2)$ might be negative but this should not be a problem since $\mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^2)$ only depends on $|\sigma|$ but not on $\sigma$.
I plotted $\mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^2)$ for several values of $\mu_i, \sigma_i$, $i=1,2$. It has a strong resemblance to the normal distribution but it is probably not the normal distribution.
Edit: For clarification I also want to add that when $\sigma=0$ I assume that $\mathcal{N}(\mu,0)$ denotes the Dirac distribution on $\mu$. Hence, at least for $\sigma_1=\sigma_2=0$ the distribution $\mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^2)$ is indeed normal.
$X=\mu+\sigma Z$ where $\mu\sim N(0,\sigma_1^2),$ $\sigma\sim N(0,\sigma_2^2)$, $Z\sim N(0,1)$ and where $\mu$, $\sigma$ and $Z$ are independent and $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_2$ are constant. Therefore $$E(e^{zX})=E(e^{z\mu})E(E(e^{z\sigma Z}|\sigma)) =e^{\sigma^2z^2/2}E(e^{\sigma^2 z^2/2})=e^{\sigma^2z^2/2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\sigma_2^2 z^2}}.$$