The Brahmagupta–Fibonacci identity says that, for integers $a,b,p,q$:
$(a^2+b^2)(p^2+q^2)=(ap+bq)^2+(aq-bp)^2$
Is there an intuitive geometric way to interpret this?
Thanks!
The Brahmagupta–Fibonacci identity says that, for integers $a,b,p,q$:
$(a^2+b^2)(p^2+q^2)=(ap+bq)^2+(aq-bp)^2$
Is there an intuitive geometric way to interpret this?
Thanks!
@Mindlack has given a straightforward algebraic proof.
Here is another proof, geometricaly oriented (indeed, it involves both the dot product and the cross product):
Let $u=\binom{a}{b}$ and $v=\binom{p}{q}$.
$$\|u\|^2\|v\|^2=(u.v)^2+(\|u \times v\|)^2$$
which is true because it boils down to:
$$\|u\|^2\|v\|^2=(\|u\|\|v\|\cos \theta)^2+((\|u\|\|v\|\sin \theta)^2$$
(a consequence of $(\cos \theta)^2+(\sin \theta)^2=1$)