Does there exist a number $x\neq0$, such that $[x\cdot\pi\in\mathbb{Q}]\wedge[x\cdot{e}\in\mathbb{Q}]$?
I thought this question would be easy to answer, but it turns out otherwise.
Obviously $x\not\in\mathbb{Q}$, but that's just about the only obvious fact here.
The way I see it, there are three possible answers to this question:
- Yes (need to show an example)
- No (need to prove)
- Unknown
I suspect that the answer is either 2 or 3, but I'm not really sure how to continue.
I think that the following might be useful:
- It is unknown if $[\pi+e \in\mathbb{Q}]\vee[\pi\cdot{e} \in\mathbb{Q}]$
- It is known that $[\pi+e\not\in\mathbb{Q}]\vee[\pi\cdot{e}\not\in\mathbb{Q}]$
Does anybody have any idea how to proceed?
If such $x$ exists, then $$ \frac{\pi}{e} = \frac{x \cdot\pi}{ x \cdot e}\in \mathbb Q.$$ Conversely, if $\frac{\pi}{e}\in \mathbb Q$ we can take $x = \frac{1}{e}$ and we have $$x\cdot \pi = \frac{\pi}{e}\in \mathbb Q $$ $$x\cdot e = 1\in \mathbb Q $$ So your question is equivalent to ask whether $\frac{\pi}{e}\in \mathbb Q$. As far as I know, this is an open problem.