Can there be a set $A$ and a set $B$ such that $A\subseteq B$ and $A\ne B$ ?
While trying to find a solution to this question, I've found this answer which states:
An improper subset (usually denoted as $A\subseteq B$) is such that $A=B$ is allowed (but not mandated)
If that's true, can you give an example for such a case where $A\ne B$ ?
Of course, $A= \{1\}$, $B =\{1,2\}$, will do. Or $A = \emptyset$ and $B$ any non-empty set, like $\{\emptyset\}$.