I have read on different sources that it is not possible to give a simple proof that "two free groups are isomorphic if and only if they have the same rank" using only what "a student who has just read the definition of free group as a set of words over an alphabet" would know. See for example the answers to this question Is there a simple proof of the fact that if free groups $F(S)$ and $F(S')$ are isomorphic, then $\operatorname{card}(S)=\operatorname{card}(S')?$.
I think I have come with such a proof, but I would like to know if it is valid. The proof goes as follows.
If A and B have the same cardinality, we can define a bijection between letters on A alphabet and letters on B alphabet. This establishes a bijection between (reduced) words on A and (reduced) words on B, and the isomorphism between the free groups F(A) and F(B). This proves the "if".
Now suppose that |A|<|B|. We can define a bijection between letters on A and a subset of the letters on B. Put differently, we can “relabel” the letters on A and say that B contains all the letters on A plus, at least, one letter that is not in A. Let x be this “extra” letter. Let w be any reduced word on A, that is, any element of F(A). Then wx is a reduced word on B, but not a valid word on A. That is, there is at least one element of F(B) that is not on F(A). Therefore, F(A) and F(B) cannot be isomorphic. This proves the "only if".
Let me write out, in full, what the "only if" direction says:
Let's write the contrapositive:
Your proof amounts to the statement that one particular homomorphism from $F(A)$ to $F(B)$, namely the homomorphism induced by a certain choice of injection $A \hookrightarrow B$, is not an isomorphism. Your proof that this one particular homomorphism is not an isomorphism is correct. But that does not amount to a proof that no isomorphism exists. And continuing in that vein is really not going to work, because you cannot possibly go through the list of all possible homomorphisms, testing them one at a time to be sure that none of them is an isomorphism.
The standard proof of the "only if" direction is to show that the tensor product $\mathbb R \otimes_{\mathbb Z} F(A)_{\text{ab}}$ --- where $G_{\text{ab}}$ denotes "abelianization" --- is a vector space whose dimension over $\mathbb R$ is equal to $|A|$. So assuming that $F(A)$ and $F(B)$ are isomorphic, one can use the theorem on well-definedness of vector space dimension to conclude that $|A|=|B|$ (and one must throw in some "functor" language as well to make the argument work).