$$\frac{a!}{b!} = \begin{cases} \prod_{k=0}^{a-b-1} (a-k) &\ \ a > b \\ \\ 1\div\prod_{k=0}^{b-a-1} (b-k) & \ \ a<b\\ \end{cases}$$
Furthermore, if it is known, does it hold any relevance?
$$\frac{a!}{b!} = \begin{cases} \prod_{k=0}^{a-b-1} (a-k) &\ \ a > b \\ \\ 1\div\prod_{k=0}^{b-a-1} (b-k) & \ \ a<b\\ \end{cases}$$
Furthermore, if it is known, does it hold any relevance?
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It is one way of expressing the falling factorial.