I know that for a relation R is transitive if, for all elements aRb and bRc implies aRc.
I came across this question, " Is x-y ≠ 0 transitive?"
I think it is transitive since
x - y ≠ 0
y - z ≠ 0
So we get x - z ≠ 0.
But the answer says that it is not transitive, since it wouldn't be valid for the case where x = z.
Shouldn't a,b and c be distinct?
I am confused as the answer given is essentially building the argument saying that(with the use of only two elements)
x - y ≠ 0
y - x ≠ 0
x - x ≠ 0
Therefore it is not transitive.
Would highly appreciate if you could make it clear if x-y ≠ 0 is transitive or not and why it is so.
I am confused as the answer given is essentially building the argument saying that
(with the use of only two elements).
The arguments is not using just 2 elements, it's using 3 elements.
It's just that the 3rd one ($x$) happens to be the same as the first ($x$).
In the definition for transitivity, no one says the elements taking part should be different.
So the relation is not transitive.
Take any two elements $x,y$ such that $x \ne y$. Now take a third element $z = x$. Test these three elements (against the definition), and you will see that the transitivity does not hold true for these 3 elements.