If we have a problem of choosing $x,y$ to minimize $ (x-1/y)^2$ given some constraints, where one of those constraints is that $y > 0$, can we always solve this problem by instead minimizing $(xy - 1)^2$, with the constraints being the same?
My thinking is that if the goal is to pick $x,y$ so that $x \approx 1/y$, then that ought to be similar/same to picking $x,y$ so that $xy \approx 1$.
That's a very interesting question and the answer is no. The reason is that in the equation $$\left(x-\frac1y\right)^2=\frac1{y^2}\left(xy-1\right)^2$$ the factor $\frac1{y^2}$ can have a non-trivial effect.
For instance, if the constraints are that $\left(\matrix{x\\y}\right)$ has to lie in the set with two elements $$S=\left\lbrace v_1\left(\matrix{x=1000\\y=0.01}\right),v_2\left(\matrix{x=110\\y=0.1}\right)\right\rbrace$$
You will see that $(xy-1)^2$ is either $81$ or $100$, and the minimum is obtained for $v_1$.
But when you divide these values by $y^2$, $81$ becomes $810000$ whereas $100$ becomes only $10000$, so the minimum of $\left(x-\frac1y\right)^2$ is obtained for $v_2$.