Consider a probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal F, \mathbb P)$ with a Brownian motion $B_t$. Let $\mathcal F_t$ be the natural filtration generated by $B_t$. Let $Y_t$ be a $B_t$ measurable process such that $$X_t := \int_0^t Y_s dB_s$$ is well-defined, finite etc.
Define $\theta_t := \int_0^t Y_s^2 ds$.
We know that there exists a Brownian motion $W_s$ such that $X_t = W_{\theta_t}$.
The question I have is the following: Is $W_{\theta_t}$ an $\mathcal F_t$ Brownian motion?
I know that the theorems say that some enlargement of probability space maybe required. So I am a little confused.
not necessarily. See here for counterexamples: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/84216/a-non-degenerate-martingale/84289#84289
eg.