I want to show that $ L^2 (\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}) \otimes \mathbb{C} ^2 $ can be thought of as the same space as $L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}) \times L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C})$ Perhaps they are isometrically isomorphic.
What is causing me trouble is the fact that we have an infinite-dimensional space here. Perhaps I could take an orthonormal Schauder basis for $ L^2 $, but the fact that these spaces are the same feel like it should be obvious.
My question is, is it correct that $ L^2 (\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}) \otimes \mathbb{C} ^2 $ can be thought of as the same space as $L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}) \times L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C})$? If so, how would one prove it?
You can see this in many ways, but one is through properties of the tensor product:
For modules $M,N_1,$ and $N_2$ over a commutative ring $R$ $$M\otimes (N_1\oplus N_2)=(M\otimes N_1)\oplus (M\otimes N_2)$$ and $$M\otimes R=M$$ see Lemma 8.12 here or any text covering tensor products.
In your example, $M$ is $L^2(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C})$ and $N_1$, $N_2$ , and $R$ are all $\mathbb{C}$. From these two general properties you can deduce the desired isomorphism of $\mathbb{C}$-modules, that is vector spaces over $\mathbb{C}$.
This is a little abstract so if it helps you can think of it this way: each element of $L^2(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C})\otimes \mathbb{C}^2$ is a sum of elements of the form $f\otimes(z_1,z_2)$, which using the properties of the tensor product may be rewritten as $z_1f\otimes(1,0)+z_2f\otimes(0,1)$. Thus, if $\{f_i\}$ is a basis of $L^2(\mathbb{C},\mathbb{R})$, $\{f_1\otimes(1,0)\}\cup \{f_i\otimes(0,1)\}$ is a basis of $L^2(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C})\otimes \mathbb{C}^2$.