Consider the following question: If the constraint function is $g=\pi r^{2}hwu=1$ and the function is $f=4r^{2}wuh$ then using the Lagrange Multiplier system $\lambda=\frac{4}{\pi}$ for all cases. Does that mean that there is no solution or infinite solution? Thanks in advance.
2026-04-07 14:37:13.1775572633
Lagrange Multiplier isn't working?
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from $$\pi r^2hwu=1$$ we get $$hwu=\frac{1}{\pi r^2}$$ plugging this in $f$ we obtain $$f=\frac{4}{\pi}$$