The following question has me stumped: Let $X_n$ be a square integrable martingale with $E((X_n)^2)\leq n$ for all $n$. Prove that $X_n/n$ tends to $0$ almost surely. (this is in a sense a law of large numbers, generalizing the case where $X_n$ is a sum of $n$ iid zero mean random variables.)
Any ideas?
We assume $X_0=0$ without loss of generality. Define $$Y_n:=\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{X_i-X_{i-1}}i, n\geqslant 1, \quad Y_0:=0.$$ Then $\left(Y_n\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$ is a martingale (for the same filtration as $\left(X_n\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$) and using the fact that $\left(X_i-X_{i-1}\right)_{i\geqslant 1}$ is a martingale differences sequence, we have
\begin{align} \mathbb E\left[Y_n^2\right]=\sum_{i=1}^n\frac 1{i^2}\left(\mathbb E\left[X_i^2\right]-\mathbb E\left[X_{i-1}^2\right]\right). \end{align} Now, using Abel's transformation and the assumption on $\mathbb E\left[X_i^2\right]$, we derive boundedness of the sequence $\left(\mathbb E\left[Y_n^2\right]\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$. Using the martingale convergence theorem, we get that the sequence $\left(Y_n\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$ converges almost surely to some random variable $Y$.
Now, we have (accounting $X_0=0$) \begin{align} \frac{X_n}n&=\frac 1n\sum_{l=1}^n\left(X_l-X_{l-1}\right)\\ &=\frac 1n\sum_{l=1}^n\frac{X_l-X_{l-1}}l\cdot l\\ &=\frac 1n\sum_{l=1}^n\left(Y_l-Y_{l-1}\right)\cdot l\\ &=\frac 1n\sum_{k=1}^nY_k\cdot k-\frac 1n\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}Y_k\cdot (k+1)\\ &=\frac 1n\sum_{k=1}^nY_k\cdot k-\frac 1n\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}Y_k\cdot (k+1)\\ &=Y_n-\frac 1n\sum_{k=1}^nY_k, \end{align} from which it follows that $X_n/n\to 0$ almost surely.