Using laws of equivalence
$$ \forall x \in U. (P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x)) \equiv \neg \exists x \in U. (P(x) \land Q(x)) $$
show that these are logically equivalent.
Using laws of equivalence
$$ \forall x \in U. (P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x)) \equiv \neg \exists x \in U. (P(x) \land Q(x)) $$
show that these are logically equivalent.
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You want:
$\forall x \in U. (P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x)) \equiv \neg \exists x \in U. (P(x) \land Q(x))$
So (using your notations),
$$\color{blue}\forall x \in U. (P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x))$$ $\equiv$ $$\color{blue}{\neg \exists} x \in U.\lnot (P(x)\color{red} \to\lnot Q(x))$$ $\equiv$ $$\neg \exists x \in U. \lnot(\color{red}\lnot P(x)\color{red} \lor \lnot Q(x))$$ $\equiv$ $$\neg \exists x \in U. (P(x) \land Q(x))$$