Let $\|\cdot\|$ the euclidean norm of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\{e_1,\ldots,e_n\}$ be an orthogonal basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$. Let $d_i=\|e_i\|$ and $m$ be an integer between $1$ and $n$. How can I prove that the two following propositions are equivalent?
$(\textrm i)$ There exists a linear subspace $\textsf W$ of $\mathbb{R}^n$ of dimension $m$ such that the orthogonal projections of $e_1,\ldots,e_n$ on $\textsf W$ have the same norm.
$(\textrm{ii})$ $\forall i\in[\![1,n]\!],\,{d_i}^2\left(\displaystyle \sum_{j=1}^n{{d_j}^{-2}}\right)\geq m$.
Thank you for your help.
This might be a start to a full proof.
Proof that (ii) implies (i) for $m=n-1$
Let $u_i$ be an orthonormal basis for $\mathbb{R}^n$ with $e_i=d_iu_i$. Let $W$ be an $m-$dimensional subspace perpendicular to the unit vector $p=\sum_{i=1}^{n}{a_iu_i}$, where $\sum_{i=1}^{n}{a_i^2}=1.$
The projection of $e_i$ onto $W$ has length $$d_i^2-(p.e_i)^2=d_i^2-a_i^2d_i^2.$$ We therefore require there to be a constant $c$ such that, for all $i$, $$1-a_i^2=\frac {c}{d_i^2}.$$ Summing over all $i$ gives $$c\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac {1}{d_i^2}=n-1.$$ and we must therefore solve, for all $i$, $$d_i^2(1-a_i^2)\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac {1}{d_i^2}=n-1 .$$ For there to be a solution simply requires $d_i^2\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac {1}{d_i^2}\ge n-1 $ which is precisely condition (ii).