I am studying semigroups. I saw a Lemma in the text that states:
Let $e$ be an idempotent of the monoid $M$, $x$, $y$ be two elements of $eMe$. Then, $(eMe)\,x\,(eMe) = (eMe)\,y\,(eMe)$ if and only if $MxM = MyM$.
If we have $MxM=MyM$, then by $x = exe$ and $y = eye$, it is not hard. I can't figure the other direction, but the text states the other direction is trivial.
Rightward proof:
Since $(eMe)x(eMe)=(eMe)y(eMe)$ then $(e1e)x(e1e)=(ee)x(ee)=exe=x$ can be expressed as an element of $(eMe)y(eMe)$. Since $eMe\subseteq M$, we have $x\in(eMe)y(eMe)\subseteq MyM$. By symmetry we can show $y\in MxM$.
Since $x\in MyM$ then $x=ayb$ and then for any $cxd\in MxM$ we have $cxd=(ca)y(bd)\in MyM$ so that $MxM\subseteq MyM$. By symmetry we can show $MyM\subseteq MxM$ to give us $MxM=MyM$.
$\square$
I think the text calls this trivial because we know for a semigroup $S$ that $x\mathcal{J}y\iff (x=s_1ys_2)\wedge(y=s_3xs_4)$ for $s_i\in S^1$. In this question we might be able to see quite quickly how to express our $x$ and $y$ in this way.