Let $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ be a function and $S$ a subset of $A$.
Are the following containments always valid?.
$(1) f^{-1} (f(S))⊆ S$
$(2) S⊆f^{-1} (f(S))$
Attempt
$S ⊆ A$
$f^{-1}(S) = \{a ∈ B : f(a) ∈ S\}$
$ a ∈ f^{-1}(S) ⟺ f(a) ∈ S$
$ f^{-1}(S) ⊆ B$
I just need a little help finishing the proof. Am i wrong in the attempt? Thanks.
Recall that for a function $ f: X \rightarrow Y $, and two subsets $A\subseteq X, B\subseteq Y$ that
$$ (f \circ f^{-1})(B) = I_Y(B)=B \\ (f^{-1} \circ f)(A) = I_X(A)=A $$
Where $I_X, I_Y$ are the identity functions. Do you think you can continue from here?