$ f_n $ is twice differentiable in (a, b);
There is $ c \in (a, b) $ such that $ (f_n’(c)) $ is a bounded sequence;
$(f_n'')$ is a uniformly bounded sequence of functions in (a, b).
Prove that if $f_n$ simply converges to a function $f:(a,b) \to \mathbb R$, then $f$ is a class $C^1$.
The class $C^1$ consists of all differentiable functions whose derivative is continuous, and in $C^1$ the zeroth and first derivatives are continuous.
From the hypothesis Isn't it straightforward that $x_n$ is $C^1$?
Thanks for the attention.
Thm: (Arzela-Ascoli). Suppose $(g_n)$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $[a,b]$ such that $(g_n)$ is uniformly equicontinuous and pointwise bounded on $[a,b].$ Then there is a subsequence of $(g_n)$ that converges uniformly on $[a,b].$
This version of A-A will be used for the given problem. A more general version is Thm. 11.6.9 at https://www.jirka.org/ra/html/sec_arzelaascoli.html
For our problem, we assume $f_1,f_2,\dots \in C^2[a,b],$ $f_n'(c)$ is bounded for some $c\in [a,b],$ and $f_n''$ is uniformy bounded on $[a,b].$ Assume further that $f_n$ converges pointwise to $f$ on $[a,b].$ We want to prove that $f\in C^1[a,b].$
Proof: There exists $C$ such that $|f_n''|\le C$ on $[a,b].$ It follows that for $x,y\in [a,b],$ the MVT implies
$$|f'(x)-f_n'(y)|\le C|y-x|.$$
This implies $(f_n')$ is uniformly equitcontinuous on $[a,b].$ Furthermmore, since there is $C_1$ such that $|f_n'(c)|\le C_1$ for all $n,$ we have
$$|f_n'(x)|\le |f_n'(x)-f_n'(c)| + |f_n'(c)| $$ $$\le C|x-c| + C_1 \le C(b-a) + C_1.$$
Thus $f_n'$ is uniformly bounded on $[a,b].$
Apply A-A to see there is a subsequence $f_{n_k}'$ converging uniformly to some $h$ on $[a,b].$ Because each $f_{n_k}'$ is continuous, so is $h.$ Fixing $x_0\in [a,b],$ we have for any $x$ that
$$f_{n_k}(x)= f_{n_k}(x_0) + \int_x^{x_0}f_{n_k}'.$$
Letting $k\to\infty,$ we get
$$f(x)= f(x_0) + \int_x^{x_0}h.$$
Since $h$ is continuous, $f\in C^1[a,b].$
We're not quite done, because your problem occurs on some $(a,b),$ not $[a,b].$ But our work above shows $f\in C^1[a',b']$ for all $a<a'<b'<b,$ and that implies $f\in C^1(a,b).$