Let $f(x,y,z):= \sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{y+2}+\sqrt{z+3}$, such that $f(x,y,z)=f(y,z,x)=f(z,x,y)$ holds. Prove that: $x=y=z$.

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The problem:

Let $x,y,z\in\mathbb R_{\ge -1}$, such that $$\begin{aligned}&\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{y+2}+\sqrt{z+3}\\ =&\sqrt{y+1}+\sqrt{z+2}+\sqrt{x+3}\\ =&\sqrt{z+1}+\sqrt{x+2}+\sqrt{y+3}\end{aligned}$$

holds. Prove that:

$$x=y=z$$


My attempts:

Proposition: Let $x=x_i,y=y_i,z=z_i$ be a possible solution combination for some $i\in\mathbb N$. Then for every $x_i$, there exist exactly one possible solution pair: $y=y_i, z=z_i.$

Proof: Suppose that $x=x_i, y=y_{j},z=z_{j}$ is an also possible solution combination for some $j\in\mathbb N$, such that $y_{j}\neq y_i$ or $z_{j}\neq z_i$.

Then using conjugate we have,

$$\frac{2}{\sqrt {x_i+1}+\sqrt {x_i+3}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt {y_i+1}+\sqrt {y_i+2}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt {z_i+2}+\sqrt {z_i+3}}$$

From here we obtain:

$$y_{j}>y_i\implies z_{j}<z_i$$

or

$$y_{j}<y_i\implies z_{j}>z_i$$

and

$$z_{j}>z_i\implies y_{j}<y_i$$

or

$$z_{j}<z_i\implies y_{j}>y_i$$

On the other hand, we have

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt {x_i+1}+\sqrt {x_i+2}}=\frac{2}{\sqrt {z_i+1}+\sqrt {z_i+3}}-\frac{1}{\sqrt {y_i+2}+\sqrt {y_i+3}}$$

From here we also obtain:

$$y_{j}>y_i\implies z_{j}>z_i$$

or

$$y_{j}<y_i\implies z_{j}<z_i$$

and

$$z_{j}>z_i\implies y_{j}>y_i$$

or

$$z_{j}<z_i \implies y_{j}<y_i$$ A contradicton.

Final step: We know that, $x=x,y=x,z=x$ is a possible solution. Then the proposition tells us: for every $x$, the solution $y=x,z=x$ is unique. Thus, we can conclude

$$x=y=z$$

is an only possible solution.


My math background is just I we learned at school age. Therefore, I couldn't be sure of my solution.

Are there missing points in my attempts?