In M\"orters and Peres' book Brownian Motion, in constructing Brownian motions, they wrote:
We have thus constructed a continuous process $B: [0, 1] → \mathbb R$ with the same finite dimensional distributions as Brownian motion. Take a sequence $B_0,B_1, . . .$ of independent $C[0, 1]$-valued random variables with the distribution of this process, and define $\{B(t): t \geq 0\}$ by gluing together the parts.
My question is: Why does the sequence $B_0,B_1,\dots$ exist? I only know that we can construct an i.i.d sequence of real valued random variables, but I don't know that can be done with $C[0,1]$-valued random variables.
If $\mu$ is the Borel measure on $C[0,1]$ induced by $B:[0,1] \to \mathbb R$ then the coordinate maps on the infinite product $(C[0,1],\mu) \times (C[0,1],\mu) \cdots $ will serve as the sequence $\{B_n\}$. There is no need to define $B_n$'s on the same space as the one on which $B$ is defined.