Let $X_1,X_2,...$ be independent and for any n $\ge 1$ and $\alpha>0$ $$X_n = \left\{ \begin{array}{rl} n^\alpha & \text{with } Pr(X_n= n^\alpha) = \frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}},\\ -n^\alpha & \text{with }Pr(X_n= -n^\alpha) = \frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}},\\ 0 & \text{with } Pr(X_n= 0) = 1- \frac{1}{n^{2\alpha}}. \end{array} \right.$$ Let $S_n = X_1+ \dots +X_n$ and $B_n^2 = \sigma_1^2+\dots+\sigma_n^2.$ Does $\frac{S_n}{B_n}\rightarrow Z \sim N(0,1)$ in distribution.
Solving this question is an example of using the Lindeberg-Feller CLT. I found that,
$E[X_n]= n^\alpha(\frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}})-n^\alpha(\frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}})+0(1-\frac{1}{n^{2\alpha}}) = 0$
and
$E[X_n^2]=(n^{\alpha})^2(\frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}}) + (-n^{\alpha})^2(\frac{1}{2n^{2\alpha}})+0^2(1-\frac{1}{n^{2\alpha}})=1.$
Therefore $\sigma_n^2 = 1$ and $B_n = \sqrt{n}$.
If the Lindeberg condition holds, i.e., for any $\epsilon > 0$ $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} E[X_k^2 I_{\{|X_k|>\epsilon B_k\}}]}{B_n^2} = 0.$$
Then $\frac{S_n}{B_n}\rightarrow Z \sim N(0,1)$ in distribution.
In our case, since $\sigma_k=1$ We have to deal with for any $\epsilon> 0,$ $\sum_{k=1}^{n} E[X_k^2 I_{\{\frac{|X_k|}{\sqrt{k}}>\epsilon\}}]$ for the numerator. I am stuck now because I dont know how to represent $E[X_k^2 I_{\{\frac{|X_k|}{\sqrt{k}}>\epsilon\}}]$.