I have looked at similar questions, however I could not find an answer to my specific problem. The problem is the following: If I have $m$ distinct boxes and $n$ distinct balls, what is the probability of finding all the balls in the same box.
I thought that I can do this via $\frac{number of successes}{number of arrangements}$, where the number of arrangements should be $m^n$?
As the outcomes are equally likely (balls are distinct), the answer can be obtained as follows by counting:
$$ \frac{ \binom{m}{1} \times 1^n}{m^n}=\frac{1}{m^{n-1}}$$
Note that if the balls are not distinct, the counting method cannot be used. Instead, the following method can be used for both cases:
$$ \binom{m}{1} \left ( \frac{1}{m} \right) ^n=\frac{1}{m^{n-1}}.$$