I have a follow-up question to my question here: Are there any rings where $0$ has a multiplicative inverse?
Here it was made clear that in the trivial ring $\{0\}$ the element $0$ does have a multiplicative inverse. From some of the linked answers and comment(Are there any rings where $0$ has a multiplicative inverse?) it was pointed out that this is one of the reasons that some people don't allow rings with $1=0$ (I think).
I can see that if one defines a field as a commutative ring where all non-zero elements have multiplicative inverses, then $\{0\}$ is a field.
My question is if the following is correct way to avoid having $\{0\}$ be a field by simply defining a field as a commutative ring with $R^\times = R\setminus \{0\}$. (Here $R^\times$ is the set of units). If this is the definition of a field, then for the trivial (commutative) ring $\{0\}$ we would have $$ R^\times = \{0\} \neq R\setminus \{0\}. $$
Did I do that right?
One of the field axioms is called the non triviality axiom and asks that $1 \neq 0$
For your question, this would certainly work but it is much easier to just ask that $0 \neq 1$, but in the end, it doesn't matter which definition we use, as long as they are equivalent (which is the case here)