How would you use mathematical induction to prove that
$1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 + 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4 + \dots + n \cdot (n + 1) \cdot (n + 2) = \frac{n(n + 1)(n + 2)(n + 3)}{4}$
I tried proving the base case of $n = 1$ but the left half is much larger than the right half after computing $n = 1$. Can someone please solve this problem and explain how and why the solution is correct? I've been stuck on it for hours.
The base case for $n=1$ is actually quite easy, since:
$\frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3 \cdot 4}{4} = 1\cdot 2 \cdot 3$
Assuming that it holds for $n$, we check $n+1$:
$1\cdot 2\cdot 3 + \cdots + n(n+1)(n+2) + (n+1)(n+2)(n+3) = \frac{n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}{4} + (n+1)(n+2)(n+3) = \frac{n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3) + 4(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}{4} = \frac{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)}{4}$
which is what we set out to prove.