Show that $(L \lor m)$ logically follows from:
- $p\land q\land r$
- $(q\leftrightarrow r) \to (L \lor m)$
how to solve this using inference theory? i could get till here,
p,q,r --- (rule p)
(q → r) ∧ (r → q) → (L ∨ m) ---(rule p)
(q → r),(r → q) → (L ∨ m)
what to do after this.. i got stuck here..
Hint
From $p \land q \land r$ derive $q$ and $r$ separately using Simplification rule.
From $q$ derive $\lnot r \lor q$ by Addition and transform it into the equivalent $(r \to q)$.
In the same way, from $r$ derive $(q \to r)$.
Then use Conjunction to get $(r \to q) \land (q \to r)$ followed by Biconditional introduction to get :