Is there a way to prove directly that
$$\int_0^1x^{(\alpha+1)-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}dx=\frac{\alpha}{\alpha+\beta}\int_0^1x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}dx$$
without reference to the fact that
$$\int_0^1x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}dx=\frac{\Gamma(\alpha)\Gamma(\beta)}{\Gamma(\alpha+\beta)}$$
or any other Gamma function facts?
I tried using integration by parts, but of course differentiating $x^{(\alpha+1)-1}$ meant that I had to integrate $(1-x)^{\beta-1}$, so I only managed to prove that
$$\int_0^1x^{(\alpha+1)-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}dx=\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\int_0^1x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{(\beta+1)-1}dx\text{.}$$
Since $\frac{d}{dx}x^\alpha(1-x)^\beta = \left(\alpha-(\alpha+\beta) x\right)x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{b-1}$ we have $$ \int_{0}^{1}\left(\alpha-(\alpha+\beta) x\right)x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}\,dx = 0 $$ which implies $$ (\alpha+\beta)\int_{0}^{1}x^\alpha(1-x)^{\beta-1}\,dx = \alpha\int_{0}^{1}x^{\alpha-1}(1-x)^{\beta-1}\,dx $$ as wanted.