I am reading the paper "Remarks on Correspondences and Algebraic Cycles" of S. Bloch and V. Srinivas. In the proof of proposition 1 in chapter 1 says:
$Ker(CH_0(U_L))\rightarrow CH_0(U_{\Omega}))$ is torsion.
Does it mean that all the elements of the kernel are torsion or does it mean that the kernel has some elements that are torsion?
Thank you for the clarification!
Does feel more like a comment than an answer, but since this is your question:
A group is torsion, if all its elements have finite order.
I see no reason why we should expect a different meaning in this situation.