Let $X=\mathbb{R}^k$ ($k\in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}$), endowed with a metric $d$. Let also $(x_n)_n$, $(y_n)_n$ be two sequences in $X$ convergent to $x,y\in X$ respectively, that is $d(x_n,x)\to 0$ and $d(y_n,y)\to 0$ as $n\to\infty$.
If $d$ is induced by a norm, then it is easy to show (using the triangular inequality) that the sequence $(x_n+y_n)_n$ converges to $x+y$, i.e. $d(x_n+y_n,x+y)\to 0$.
While it is clear in the proof where the norm assumption is used, I still have not managed to construct a counterexample for the convergence of $(x_n+y_n)_n$ to $x+y$ when $d$ is not induced by a norm. I think that at least a non-constructive proof of existence of a suitable $d$ should be doable by means of the axiom of choice, but I have managed to prove that either yet. Ideas?
If we put a norm on $\Bbb R^n$ then they are all equivalent, so the metrics from them give the same standard topology on $\Bbb R^n$. And as addition is continuous, we always have, purely from topology, $x_n \to x, y_n \to y \implies x_n + y_n \to x+y$.
If we have a different metric on $\Bbb R^n$ which induces a different topology on $\Bbb R^2$, then we can make examples: e.g. for the river metric (defined here) on $\Bbb R^2$ we have $(1+\frac1n, 0) \to (1,0)$, $(0,1+\frac1n) \to (0,1)$ but $(1+\frac1n, 1+\frac1n)\not \to (1,1)$.