I need to understand why we are taking the $\frac{1}{2}$ fraction when i want to minimize the variance covariance matrix:
$\min _{\omega} \frac{1}{2} \omega^{\top} \mathbf{V} \omega$.
Our professor is going on to using the Lagrangian to minimize the matrix, I dont know if this has something to do with the $\frac{1}{2}$.