$$\begin{array}{ll} \text{minimize} & f(x,y,z) := x^2 + y^2 + z^2\\ \text{subject to} & g(x,y,z) := xy - z + 1 = 0\end{array}$$
I tried the Lagrange multipliers method and the system resulted from has no solution. So I posted it to see if the question is wrong by itself or I'm missing something.
So I made the Lagrangian equation $L(x,y,z,λ)=x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + λ(xy -z+1)$
and then
$θL/θx = 2x + λy =0$
$θL/θy = 2y + λx =0$
$θL/θz = 2z - λ =0$
$θL/θλ = xy -z +1 =0 $
The obvious solution for that system is x=0 , y=0 , z=1 and λ=2
But solving it in an online solver for nonlinear systems of equation the answer I get is that it's unsolvable.
So my question is: What I'm doing wrong
Since $f$ and $g$ are polynomial, using SymPy's
solve_poly_system:Hence, the only real solution is $(x,y,z,\mu) = (0, 0, 1, 2)$. Not very insightful, however.
Let $\mathcal L$ be the Lagrangian. Computing $\partial_x \mathcal L$, $\partial_y \mathcal L$ and $\partial_z \mathcal L$ and finding where they vanish,
$$\begin{bmatrix} 2 & \mu & 0\\ \mu & 2 & 0\\ 0 & 0 & 2\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ z\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\ 0\\ \mu\end{bmatrix}$$
Note that the matrix is singular when $\mu = \pm 2$. Hence, we have three cases to consider.
$\color{blue}{\boxed{\mu = 2}}$
The solution set is the line parameterized by
$$\begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ z\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} t\\-t\\ 1\end{bmatrix}$$
and, since, $xy - z + 1 = 0$, we obtain $t = 0$ and $\color{blue}{(x,y,z) = (0,0,1)}$.
$\color{blue}{\boxed{\mu =-2}}$
The solution set is the line parameterized by
$$\begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ z\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} t\\ t\\ -1\end{bmatrix}$$
and, since, $xy - z + 1 = 0$, we obtain the equation $t^2 = -2$, which has no solution over the reals.
$\color{blue}{\boxed{\mu \neq \pm2}}$
The solution set is the line parameterized by
$$\begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ z\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\ 0\\ \frac{\mu}{2}\end{bmatrix}$$
and, since, $xy - z + 1 = 0$, we obtain $\mu = 2$, which contradicts the assumption.