Let $Y_n$ given as $\mathrm{ceil}(X_n)$, where $\mathrm{ceil}(x):=$ the least integer greater than or equal to $x$ and $(X_n)$ is a sequence of iid random variables from $\mathrm{Exp}(\theta),~\theta>0$.
Then $Y_n\sim Geo(p)$, where $p=p(\theta):=1-e^{-\theta}$ and since the maximum likelihood estimator (mle) for $\theta$ is given as $\frac{1}{\overline{X}}$, the mle for $p(\theta)$ is $1-e^{-\frac{1}{\overline{X}}}$.
If we compute directly the mle for $p$ using $\mathbb{P}(Y_1=y)=(1-p)^{y-1}p$ for $y\in \mathbb{N}$, we get that the maximum likelihood estimator for $p$ is given as $\frac{1}{\overline{Y}}=\frac{1}{\overline{\mathrm{ceil}(X)}} $, which is not the same as the previous result.
Is there some contradiction in these two results, or some fallacy?
Thank for the help.
As Math-fun says, you are in effect using two different sets of information, one unrounded and the other rounded up, so you should not expect the same result.
For example,
Here is some R code to simulate a thousand samples of size $10$. From the chart below you can reasonably conclude:
.