I'm wondering when does the following partial sum monotonically increase or decrease in $n$: $$f_x(n)=\sum^{\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\rfloor}_{k=0}{n \choose k}x^k(1-x)^{n-k}.$$
In theory, if $x<\frac{1}{2}$, the probability converges to 1. On the other hand, if $x>\frac{1}{2}$, it converges to zero. And when $x=\frac{1}{2}$, it converges to $\frac{1}{2}$.
I initially tried to show that the convergence is monotonically made, meaning that $f_x(n)$ is monotone in $n$. However, I tried several numbers for $x$ and found that it is actually not.
For example, when $x=0.49$, we have $f_{0.49}(2)\simeq0.7599$, $f_{0.49}(20)\simeq0.6229$, $f_{0.49}(10000)\simeq0.9778$. A similar example can be found for $x>\frac{1}{2}$.
Is there any intuition behind this non-monotonicity? or is there any increment in $n$ that the monotonicity is guaranteed?
I believe this is due to the fact that you're using even $n$. That includes the central coefficient $\binom n{n/2}$ and is thus half a value more than half of the sum. The effect of this “rounding error” is greater at smaller $n$, since half an additional value makes more of a difference when the distribution is spread over fewer values, and you're seeing the combined effect of this and the fact that the distribution gets more fully concentrated in the first half with increasing $n$. This effect doesn't occur for odd $n$, where you do get exactly half of the sum. For instance, $f_{0.49}(3)\approx0.5150$, $f_{0.49}(21)\approx0.5370$ and $f_{0.49}(10001)\approx0.9773$.