Suppose we randomly arrange $n$ objects of which $s$ are of silver, $1$ is of gold and the remaining $n-s-1$ are of copper.
The question I looked at is:
what is the probability that all eventual predecessors of the golden object are of silver?
We could rephrase this as:
what is the probability that among the eventual predecessors of the golden object are no copper objects.
I defined the described event as $E$ and approached the answer by first defining $E_i$ (this for $i=0,1,\dots,s$) as the event that the golden object is on spot $i+1$ and its predecessors are all of silver.
Then we find:$$P(E_i)=\frac1n\binom{s}i\binom{n-1}i^{-1}=\frac1n\binom{n-1}s^{-1}\binom{n-i-1}{n-s-1}$$ and making use of the hockey-stick identity we arrive at:$$P(E)=\sum_{i=0}^sP(E_i)=\frac1n\binom{n-1}s^{-1}\binom{n}{n-s}=\frac1{n-s}$$
That is a nice result. So nice that IMV it clearly indicates the existence of more direct way to find it. I tried to, but failed.
So my question is:
Can you provide me a more direct solution?
Thank you for taking notice of this and sorry in advance if this appears to be a duplicate question.
Edit
My original question did not mention the word "copper" neither the rephrasing of the question that uses the word "copper". In my (narrow) thinking I was purely focused on gold and silver. This fact provided the blind spot that I am now released from.
In situations like this a sort of battle takes place within me. I am very eager to find the smart solution myself. I can pose it as a question but my pride first forbids me to do so. After some struggling I set this (stupid) pride aside and decide to show my shortcomings. A healthy process.
Thank you all for your answers.
Lay down all the copper and gold coins. The probability that the gold coin is first is $\frac1{n-s}$.