Consider that $p_0,\dots,p_m$ are probabilities such that $\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}p_i=1$. I would like to prove that \begin{align} \textstyle n\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}ip_i=\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}. \end{align}
I have been trying to prove it with induction. For $n=1$ and for each $m\in\mathbb{N}$ we have $\begin{aligned} &\textstyle\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=1;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{1}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}=\\ &=\textstyle \left({\color{red}1}\cdot m+0\cdot(m-1)+0\cdot(m-2)+\dots+0\cdot 1+0\cdot 0\right)p_m^{{\color{red}1}} p_{m-1}^{0}p_{m-2}^{0}\dots p_1^{0}p_0^{0}+\\ &+\textstyle \left(0\cdot m+{\color{red}1}\cdot(m-1)+0\cdot(m-2)+\dots+0\cdot 1+0\cdot 0\right)p_m^{0} p_{m-1}^{{\color{red}1}}p_{m-2}^{0}\dots p_1^{0}p_0^{0}+\\ &+\textstyle \left(0\cdot m+0\cdot(m-1)+{\color{red}1}\cdot(m-2)+\dots+0\cdot 1+0\cdot 0\right)p_m^{0} p_{m-1}^{0}p_{m-2}^{{\color{red}1}}\dots p_1^{0}p_0^{0}+\\ &\phantom{+}\vdots\\ &+\textstyle \left(0\cdot m+0\cdot(m-1)+0\cdot(m-2)+\dots+{\color{red}1}\cdot 1+0\cdot 0\right)p_m^{0} p_{m-1}^{0}\dots p_1^{{\color{red}1}}p_0^{0}+\\ &+\textstyle\left(0\cdot m+0\cdot(m-1)+0\cdot(m-2)+\dots+0\cdot 1+{\color{red}1}\cdot 0\right)p_m^{1} p_{m-1}^{0}\dots p_1^{0}p_0^{{\color{red}1}}=\\ &=\textstyle mp_m+(m-1)p_{m-1}+\dots+1\cdot p_1+0\cdot p_0=\sum\limits_{i=0}^mip_i. \end{aligned}$
Now I would like to prove it for $n+1$. $\begin{aligned} &\textstyle\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n+1;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n+1}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}=\\ &=\textstyle\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n+1;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}(n+1)\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}=\\ &=\textstyle n\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n+1;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}+\\ &+\textstyle\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n+1;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}=\dots \end{aligned}$
But now I do not have idea how to continue.
Any help will be appreciated. Thank you.
I think it's easier to do the induction on $\ m\ $ rather than $\ n\ $. Here's an outline.
Let \begin{align} E_n&=\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_m=n;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}\\ &=\sum_{k_m=0}^n\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_{m-1}\\=n-k_m;\ k_i\geq 0}\binom{n}{k_0,\dots,k_m}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m}k_{i}i\right)p_m^{k_m} p_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots p_1^{k_1}p_0^{k_0}\\ &=\sum_{k_m=0}^np_m^{k_m}\big(1-p_m\big)^{n-k_m}{n\choose k_m}\\ &\sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_{m-1}\\=n-k_m;\ k_i\geq 0}\binom{n-k_m}{k_0,\dots,k_{m-1}}\left(mk_m+\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m-1}k_{i}i\right) q_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots q_1^{k_1}q_0^{k_0}\ , \end{align} where $\ q_i=\frac{p_i}{1-p_m}\ $. Now $\ \sum_\limits{i=0}^{m-1}q_i=1\ $, so $$ \sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_{m-1}\\=n-k_m;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n-k_m}{k_0,\dots,k_{m-1}}q_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots q_1^{k_1}q_0^{k_0}=1\ , $$ because this is just the sum of the probabilities of the elementary outcomes of an $\ n-k_m,q_0,q_1,\dots,q_{m-1}\ $ multinomial distribution, and if the result is true for $\ m-1\ $, then we have $$ \sum\limits_{k_0+\dots +k_{m-1}\\=n-k_m;\text{ }k_i\geq 0}\binom{n-k_m}{k_0,\dots,k_{m-1}}\left(\sum\limits_{i=0}^{m-1}k_{i}i\right) q_{m-1}^{k_{m-1}}\dots q_1^{k_1}q_0^{k_0}\\ =\big(n-k_m\big)\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}iq_i\ . $$
Substituting these values back into the last expression above for $\ E_n\ $ gives \begin{align} E_n&=\sum_{k_m=0}^np_m^{k_m}\big(1-p_m\big)^{n-k_m}{n\choose k_m}\left(mk_m+\big(n-k_m\big)\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}iq_i\right)\\ &=mnp_k+n\big(1-p_k\big)\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}iq_i\\ &=n\sum_{i=0}^mip_i\ , \end{align} from the formula for the mean of the binomial distribution. Thus, the result holds for $\ m\ $ if it holds for $\ m-1\ $. The result also holds for $\ m=1\ $, because then it's just the formula for the mean of the binomial distribution. The result therefore holds for all $\ m\ge1\ $ by induction.